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Contra Stavrinides
by Frank Nelte

PART XVIII: THE MEANING OF "ELOHIM"

One of the truths that Dr. Stavrinides attempts to discredit is that "ELOHIM" is a plural word which reveals that there are currently TWO God-beings and that God is in the process of building a Family of (ultimately) many millions of God-beings.

He therefore tries to persuade us that "Elohim" also means "judges" and that in the LXX it is often translated as "Mighty Ones".

Let's examine this word "Elohim" very carefully.

  1. The word "Elohim" is used 2606 times in 2249 different verses of the Old Testament. It obviously is not used in the N.T..

    Of those 2606 occurrences it is translated in the KJV as follows:

  2. Thus it obviously refers to the true God 2346 times plus one time ( as "GOD"), for a total of 2347 times.
  3. It is rendered 244 times as "god/s". Apart from Psalm 82:6 where it refers to the potential of the first resurrection, these uses refer basically to pagan "gods" or "deities". It is used this same way two times, when it is rendered as "goddess", referring again to pagan "gods". This usage is clearly to be expected ... how else would you convey what the pagans had in mind when they thought of their "gods"?

    THE PAGAN GREEK PHILOSOPHERS USED THE WORD "THEOS" IN EXACTLY THIS SAME WAY TO REFER TO THE PAGAN GREEK "GODS"! How else could you possibly know what "Zeus" and "Aphrodite" and "Bacchus" meant to the ancient Greeks UNLESS you used the word "THEOS" to refer to these pagan "deities"?

    So the fact that the word for "God" in the O.T. ("Elohim") is also used for pagan idols, does not in any way detract from the meaning of this word ... any more than the word "theos" is "ambiguous and difficult to translate" because it happens to also be used for non-existent entities like "Zeus", etc..

    This accounts for 244 plus two uses, for a total of 246 uses.

  4. These two totals together (2347 + 246) amount to 2593 occurrences of the word "Elohim".

    Now, IF those were the only times that this word was used in the O.T., THEN there would be no ambiguity, no difficulty, no misunderstandings, right? Right!

    Thus that leaves exactly (2606 - 2593) 13 (thirteen!) other occurrences of this word, that are responsible for the confusion surrounding its meaning ... THIRTEEN uses out of 2606!

    Let's look at all 13 of them more closely.

  5. Here they are. I have rendered the translation of "Elohim" in capital letters, for easier recognition.
    And did not he make one? Yet had he the residue of the spirit. And wherefore one? That he might seek a GODLY seed. Therefore take heed to your spirit, and let none deal treacherously against the wife of his youth. (Malachi 2:15)

    "A godly seed" is literally "a seed of Elohim". This is just one more scripture that shows God's intention of reproducing Himself. There's no difficulty in applying this verse to the true God.

    Hearken now unto my voice, I will give thee counsel, and God shall be with thee: Be thou for the people to GOD-ward, that thou mayest bring the causes unto God: (Exodus 18:19)

    Here "God-ward" is a translation of the two Hebrew words "muwl Elohim", which literally means "towards God". There's no difficulty in applying THIS verse to the true God either.

    Hear us, my lord: thou [art] a MIGHTY prince among us: in the choice of our sepulchres bury thy dead; none of us shall withhold from thee his sepulchre, but that thou mayest bury thy dead. (Genesis 23:6)

    "A mighty prince" is literally "a prince of Elohim". Again this verse presents no difficulties in applying to the true God.

    Intreat the LORD (for [it is] enough) that there be no [more] MIGHTY thunderings and hail; and I will let you go, and ye shall stay no longer. (Exodus 9:28)

    "Mighty thunderings" literally are "thunderings from Elohim". Again, this refers clearly to the true God.

    And there was trembling in the host, in the field, and among all the people: the garrison, and the spoilers, they also trembled, and the earth quaked: so it was A VERY GREAT trembling. (ISamuel 14:15)

    "A very great trembling" in Hebrew is "a trembling from or of Elohim". This use of "Elohim" also refers to the true God.

    And Rachel said, With GREAT wrestlings have I wrestled with my sister, and I have prevailed: and she called his name Naphtali. (Genesis 30:8)

    The Hebrew for "with great wrestlings" is "with wrestlings of Elohim". Rachel clearly had the true God in mind when she said this. But even IF she had had some pagan "god" in mind, that still would not in any way conflict with "Elohim" meaning "God" or pagan "god".

    So Jonah arose, and went unto Nineveh, according to the word of the LORD. Now Nineveh was an EXCEEDING great city of three days' journey. (Jonah 3:3)

    "an exceeding great city" in Hebrew is "Elohim gadowl iyr", literally "to Elohim a great city". In other words, Elohim considered Niniveh to be a great city ... which is precisely what God had said in the previous verse:

    Arise, go unto Nineveh, that great city, and preach unto it the preaching that I bid thee. (Jonah 3:2)

    That's what God had called it, when speaking to Jonah and so in the next verse Jonah tells us that "Niniveh was to Elohim a great city of three days' journey". This should be clear enough. Anyway, again no difficulty in identifying THIS use of "Elohim" as referring to the true God.

    For thou hast made him a little lower than the ANGELS, and hast crowned him with glory and honour. (Psalms 8:5)

    Here "a little lower" means "for a little while lower". The expression "a little lower than the angels" really says: "for a little while lower than the Elohim".

    The translators chose to translate "Elohim" in this particular verse as "angels". They had no precedent for this choice of translation ANYWHERE in the O.T.. The odds are at least "2590 to one" against rendering "Elohim" as "angels". They did this purely because of the way the Apostle Paul quoted this verse in Hebrews 2:7, not for any linguistic reason ...

    Thou madest him a little lower than the angels; thou crownedst him with glory and honour, and didst set him over the works of thy hands: (Hebrews 2:7)

    Moffatt, for example, translates this phrase in Psalm 8:5 as:

    "Yet thou hast made him little less than divine ...".

    I don't mean to imply that this is the best way to translate this phrase; but it illustrates the fact that Moffatt recognized that "Elohim" doesn't really mean "angels"!

    Earlier, in PART IX, on page 42 I mentioned Dr. Stavrinides' statement that "all four gospel writers quote from the LXX, not from the Hebrew". I showed that they didn't really "QUOTE" the LXX at all ... but that statement DOES illustrate the fact that the New Testament writers don't necessarily always quote the exact meaning of the O.T. Hebrew text. Quotations are ADAPTED by those who make them to the circumstances that they are addressing.

    We today do the same thing all the time. If the source of your quotation is a different language from the language in which you are giving the quotation, then there is some added potential for slight variations.

    The point is that Paul, under inspiration, also made adaptations in other passages he quoted from the Old Testament.

    SO HERE'S THE POINT: I have no problem with the Apostle Paul using the word "angels" in Hebrews 2:7. But that is a New Testament Greek passage. The fact remains that, from a linguistic point of view, there is absolutely no justification for translating "Elohim" in Psalm 8:5 with the word "angels" ... none at all!

    Where else in the Bible did God ever inspire the word "Elohim" to mean "angels"? The answer is: NOWHERE!

    Now, is it true that "man is for a while lower than the angels"? Yes, certainly that is true. Is it true that "man is for a while lower than the gods" (as this word is rendered in Psalm 82:6)? Yes, that is also true. Man has not yet achieved his potential of being born into the God-Family and therefore is still lower than "the gods" (will one day be).

    Similarly, if one wants to apply Psalm 8:5 specifically to Jesus Christ: is it true that Jesus Christ, during His earthly ministry, was "for a little while lower than the angels"? Yes, that is true. And is it true that Jesus Christ was "for a little while lower than the gods (those who will be changed into sons of God at the resurrection)"? Yes, that is also true.

    So it is not a matter that if it is translated by "angels" instead of by "gods", then the statement is no longer valid. That's not the point. But the Hebrew does not justify or support the translation of "Elohim" as "angels".

  6. We have now covered 8 of the 13 places where "Elohim" is used in the O.T. ... apart from the obvious usages. That leaves us with the FIVE times in four verses that "Elohim" is translated as "JUDGE". Let's now see those scriptures.
    Then his master shall bring him unto the JUDGES; he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever. (Exodus 21:6)
    If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought unto the JUDGES, [to see] whether he have put his hand unto his neighbour's goods. (Exodus 22:8)
    For all manner of trespass, [whether it be] for ox, for ass, for sheep, for raiment, [or] for any manner of lost thing, which [another] challengeth to be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the JUDGES; [and] whom the JUDGES shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his neighbour. (Exodus 22:9) (twice in this verse)
    If one man sin against another, the JUDGE shall judge him: but if a man sin against the LORD, who shall intreat for him? Notwithstanding they hearkened not unto the voice of their father, because the LORD would slay them. (ISamuel 2:25)

    The first four places are within the context of the Old Covenant (one use in Exo. 21:6 and 3 uses in Exo. 22:8-9), right after the giving of the 10 commandments in Exo. 20. Righteous judges are implied in these verses. Similarly, Eli, in talking to his wicked sons in 1Sam. 2:25, had a righteous judge in mind.

    These are the only 5 instances where "Elohim" can be correctly rendered as "judges" ... and RIGHTEOUS judges are implied in all cases. "Judging" is a prerogative of God ... He is the ultimate Judge.

  7. The word "Elohim" means "God", not "Judge", but "judging" is a godly responsibility and so in these 5 places the word is used for judges.

    In the other 2601 times that this word is used in the O.T. it refers to "God", including the idols that pagans looked upon as "gods". These 2601 uses of the word make the meaning very plain.

  8. In the very first sentence of His revelation to mankind (i.e. Genesis 1:1), God introduces Himself to man as "Elohim". It is a word that identifies God. In PART VIII, starting on page 35, we saw the 40 places where God identifies Himself as "the YHWH your Elohim" to Israel.
  9. "Elohim" is not the Hebrew word for "judge" at all. The main word for "judge" is a verb "shafat", which is in the KJV rendered 119 times as the verb "judge" and 60 more times as the noun "judge".
  10. "Elohim" is a plural noun. There was no need to speak with the plural verb in Genesis 1:26, unless the One doing the speaking was speaking on behalf of another Being. And that's exactly right. Jesus Christ was speaking in Genesis 1 and later He said:
    For I HAVE NOT SPOKEN OF MYSELF; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (John 12:49) and ...
    Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I SPEAK NOT OF MYSELF: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)

    Christ was doing exactly the same thing in Genesis 1 and that is why He said:

    And God said, LET US make man in OUR image, after OUR likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. (Genesis 1:26)
  11. Consider this: Jesus Christ and God the Father are "of the same kind", the God-kind. Whoever is "in the image and after the likeness" of ONE of them, is AUTOMATICALLY also in the image and likeness of the other! Because there ARE two separate God-beings, it would not have been correct for Christ to use the singular pronoun "MY" instead of the plural "OUR". "In Christ's image and likeness" automatically also means "in God the Father's image and likeness".
    Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? HE THAT HATH SEEN ME HATH SEEN THE FATHER; and how sayest thou [then], Shew us the Father? (John 14:9)
    For Jesus Christ to have used the singular pronouns in Genesis 1:26 would have been to IGNORE God the Father. Just picture yourself in the situation of being the speaker in Genesis 1:26.

    When we really understand this verse, then it should become clear that there was no way that Jesus Christ could possibly have used the singular! He simply HAD TO USE THE PLURAL "in OUR image, after OUR likeness"!

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